A) January 1, 1932 B) January 1, 1930 C) December 8, 1930 D) July 4, 1946
A) Judicial discretion B) Territoriality C) Generality D) Prospectivity
A) A private citizen violates a foreign country's law. B) A public officer commits an offense abroad in the exercise of official functions. C) A Filipino commits any crime in any foreign country. D) A foreign tourist commits an ordinary crime abroad.
A) Legality B) Favorability C) Generality D) Irretroactivity
A) The new law can never apply to past offenses. B) The favorable penal law may apply retroactively. C) The accused must always serve the original penalty. D) The new law applies only to crimes committed by public officers.
A) Stare decisis B) Res judicata C) Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea D) Nullum crimen, nulla poena sine lege
A) Only deliberate intent B) Only negligence C) Intentional acts or culpable acts arising from imprudence or negligence D) Only acts resulting in actual injury
A) Culpa B) Irresistible force C) Dolo D) Accident
A) Proposal B) Culpa C) Treachery D) Conspiracy
A) Criminal statutes must be liberally construed against the accused. B) Doubts must always favor the prosecution. C) The accused must prove innocence. D) Doubts in the interpretation of penal laws or in criminal liability are generally resolved in favor of the accused.
A) When all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present. B) When the victim files a complaint. C) When the offender merely forms the intention to commit it. D) When the offender is arrested.
A) Consummated homicide B) Impossible crime C) Attempted homicide D) Frustrated homicide
A) Frustrated homicide in all cases B) Attempted homicide or attempted murder, depending on the circumstances C) Impossible crime D) Consummated homicide
A) Whether the offender has performed all acts of execution B) The offender's apprehension C) The existence of a victim D) The presence of criminal intent
A) Frustrated B) Consummated C) Preparatory D) Attempted
A) Frustrated theft B) Consummated theft C) Attempted theft D) No possible criminal liability under any circumstances
A) Light felonies are punishable only when consummated, except those committed against persons or property. B) All light felonies are punishable even when merely attempted. C) Light felonies are punishable only when committed by public officers. D) Light felonies are never punishable.
A) When the law specifically provides a penalty for conspiracy B) In every case, even when the law does not provide a penalty for conspiracy C) Only when the intended felony is consummated D) Only when all conspirators are arrested
A) When a person who has decided to commit a felony proposes its execution to another person or persons B) The actual performance of all acts of execution C) An agreement between two or more persons to commit a felony D) The concealment of a crime after its commission
A) Attempted robbery B) Frustrated robbery C) Not punishable as conspiracy under the RPC unless the law specifically penalizes it D) Consummated robbery
A) Public, private, and administrative offenses B) Continuing, complex, and special offenses C) Grave, less grave, and light felonies D) Intentional, negligent, and accidental offenses
A) A light felony B) A less grave felony C) A grave felony D) An administrative offense
A) Principle of territoriality B) Rule of lenity C) Rule on double jeopardy D) Praeter intentionem principle
A) Extenuating circumstance only B) Absolutory cause C) Justifying circumstance D) Impossible crime
A) The act would be an offense against persons or property were it not for the inherent impossibility or ineffectual means. B) The offender must have criminal intent. C) The act is inherently incapable of accomplishment or uses inadequate or ineffectual means. D) The intended offense must actually be consummated.
A) Accident without negligence B) Insanity in every case C) Passion or obfuscation D) Minority in every case
A) Unlawful aggression B) Previous conviction of the aggressor C) Serious injury to the defender D) A prior demand to stop
A) Unlawful aggression B) Voluntary surrender C) Lack of sufficient provocation D) Reasonable necessity of the means employed
A) Reasonable necessity of the means employed B) Unlawful aggression C) Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the defender D) The aggressor must die or suffer serious physical injuries
A) The stranger must be a public officer. B) The defender must not be motivated by revenge, resentment, or another evil motive. C) The defender must be related to the stranger. D) The defender must have been attacked first.
A) Quasi-recidivism B) Recidivism C) Treachery D) Avoidance of a greater evil or injury
A) Fulfillment of a duty or lawful exercise of a right or office B) Passion or obfuscation C) Voluntary surrender D) Minority
A) Obedience always exempts the subordinate from liability. B) The exemption requires an order issued for a lawful purpose. C) The subordinate is automatically exempt if acting during work hours. D) Every order of a superior is presumed lawful.
A) Irresistible force B) Abuse of confidence C) Evident premeditation D) Treachery
A) Mitigating circumstance of voluntary surrender only B) Exempting circumstance of insanity C) Aggravating circumstance of treachery D) Alternative circumstance of intoxication
A) Exempt only if the offense is a light felony B) Exempt from criminal liability, subject to applicable juvenile justice law C) Always criminally liable as an adult D) Liable only for civil damages and never subject to intervention
A) Discernment B) Recidivism C) Abuse of confidence D) Treachery
A) Accident B) Mistake of fact in every case C) Irresistible force D) Uncontrollable fear
A) Qualifying circumstance B) Alternative circumstance C) Aggravating circumstance D) Exempting circumstance
A) Treachery B) Recidivism C) An exempting circumstance D) A qualifying circumstance
A) Treachery B) Dwelling C) Voluntary surrender D) Evident premeditation
A) Made only after serving the sentence B) Spontaneous and made to acknowledge guilt or save authorities the trouble and expense of search and capture C) Made only after conviction D) Required by a court order after arrest
A) An aggravating circumstance B) A justifying circumstance C) A mitigating circumstance D) An exempting circumstance
A) Recidivism B) Treachery C) A qualifying circumstance D) A mitigating circumstance involving lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong
A) Abuse of confidence B) Praeter intentionem C) Evident premeditation D) Treachery
A) Treachery B) Recidivism C) Quasi-recidivism D) Mitigating circumstance of sufficient provocation
A) Plea of guilty B) Treachery C) Voluntary surrender D) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong
A) Treachery B) Accident C) Passion or obfuscation D) Voluntary surrender
A) Dwelling B) Voluntary surrender C) Minority D) Accident
A) No, because nighttime can never aggravate a crime B) Yes, whenever the offense occurs after 6:00 p.m. C) Yes, in every case D) No; it must be shown to have been purposely sought or to have facilitated the crime, or otherwise satisfy the applicable legal requirements
A) Intoxication B) Evident premeditation C) Unlawful aggression D) Treachery
A) Neither habitual nor intentional B) Habitual and intentional C) Automatically proven by the offender's testimony alone D) Always present whenever alcohol is consumed
A) Relationship is always mitigating. B) Its effect depends on the nature of the crime and the statutory rules. C) Relationship is always aggravating. D) Relationship is never considered by the court.
A) Principal by inducement B) First offender C) Quasi-recidivist in every case D) Recidivist
A) Recidivism requires the second offense to occur while serving sentence. B) Quasi-recidivism involves committing a new felony after conviction by final judgment and before beginning to serve, or while serving, sentence for a prior conviction, as provided by law. C) They are exactly the same. D) Quasi-recidivism applies only to negligent felonies.
A) Accomplices only B) Principals only C) Principals, accomplices, and accessories D) Accessories only
A) Principal by direct participation B) Civilly liable person only C) Witness D) Accessory only
A) Principal by direct participation in every case B) Accessory after the fact only C) Principal by inducement, if the legal requisites are met D) Accomplice only
A) Victim B) Witness C) Accessory only D) Principal by indispensable cooperation
A) Accessory B) Principal by inducement in all cases C) Accomplice D) Exempt person
A) Victim B) Accomplice before the fact C) Principal by direct participation D) Accessory
A) Being related to the offender without assisting B) Concealing or destroying the body of the crime to prevent its discovery C) Reporting the crime to authorities D) Merely witnessing the crime without participating
A) An accessory is necessarily the person who planned the crime. B) All accessories are liable for every felony regardless of circumstances. C) Article 19 specifies acts that may make a person an accessory, subject to statutory exceptions. D) An accessory must always be present during execution.
A) All public officers B) All friends of the principal C) All persons who provide shelter D) Certain relatives of the principal, as specified by law
A) Agreement alone always establishes guilt beyond reasonable doubt. B) The act of one conspirator may be attributable to the others in the execution of the common design. C) All crimes require conspiracy. D) Every person present at the scene is automatically guilty.
A) Reparation of damages B) Restitution C) Reclusion temporal D) Indemnification
A) Fine classified as a light penalty B) Public censure C) Arresto menor D) Reclusion temporal
A) Prision correccional B) Reclusion perpetua C) Death D) Reclusion temporal
A) Reclusion temporal B) Prision mayor C) Prision correccional D) Arresto menor
A) To permit courts to invent penalties for any conduct B) To allow retroactive imposition of harsher penalties C) To prohibit the imposition of a penalty not prescribed by law before the commission of the offense D) To remove the requirement of a criminal statute
A) Territoriality B) Generality C) Legality of penalties D) Civil indemnity
A) Only persons who are public officers B) Persons guilty of a felony, even if serving sentence, subject to the law's exceptions C) Only persons who have not been charged D) No person convicted before the law's enactment
A) The maximum penalty is always imposed. B) Courts disregard all circumstances C) The minimum penalty is always imposed. D) The court applies the statutory rules governing the proper period or degree of the penalty.
A) They are always divided into three periods. B) They cannot be imposed by a court. C) They apply only to civil liability. D) They are imposed according to the applicable statutory rules for indivisible penalties and relevant circumstances.
A) To govern the application of penalties divisible into three periods when the circumstances specified by law are present B) To determine territorial jurisdiction C) To define impossible crimes D) To extinguish civil liability automatically
A) The maximum duration of the convict's service of multiple penalties B) The amount of civil indemnity in every case C) The number of aggravating circumstances D) The number of criminal cases that may be filed
A) Thirty years in every case B) Twenty years in every case C) Three times the most severe penalty, subject to the statutory maximum of forty years D) The sum of all penalties in every case
A) Confiscation of proceeds only B) Restitution only C) Payment of civil indemnity only D) Arresto mayor
A) It is mandatory for every unpaid civil debt. B) It may be imposed only as authorized by law and subject to applicable limits and exceptions. C) It may be imposed without statutory authority. D) It applies to all civil damages.
A) They may attach to principal penalties as provided by law. B) They are always independent of principal penalties. C) They are never imposed by operation of law. D) They are equivalent to civil damages.
A) Prescription of the crime B) Plea of guilty C) Voluntary surrender D) Payment of civil damages alone
A) Only civil liability arising from the crime B) Only accessory penalties C) All civil obligations of the deceased, including those unrelated to the crime D) Criminal liability and civil liability ex delicto, subject to applicable law and jurisprudence
A) It prevents the offended party from seeking restitution in every case. B) It is merely a mitigating circumstance. C) It automatically extinguishes every civil obligation. D) It is a mode of total extinction of criminal liability.
A) A pardon automatically erases the historical fact of conviction for all purposes. B) A pardon may remit the penalty as provided by law, but does not automatically extinguish civil liability. C) A pardon always extinguishes civil liability. D) A pardon is the same as acquittal.
A) It is the payment of a fine. B) It is the victim's forgiveness of the offender. C) It is the reduction of a penalty by the court. D) It is the expiration of the period within which the State may prosecute, as determined by law.
A) The penalty prescribed by law and the applicable statutory rules B) The offender's occupation alone C) The victim's age alone D) The location of the police station
A) Conditional pardon B) Prescription of the crime C) Amnesty D) Death of the convict
A) The classification of felonies B) The amount of civil indemnity C) Deduction from the term of imprisonment for qualifying good conduct, subject to law D) The determination of conspiracy
A) It is granted by a private complainant. B) It is a governmental act that may extinguish criminal liability for covered offenses, subject to constitutional and legal requirements. C) It automatically applies to every crime. D) It is identical to voluntary surrender.
A) Prescription of a crime concerns the period to prosecute, while prescription of a penalty concerns the period to enforce a penalty imposed by final judgment. B) There is no legal distinction between them. C) Both apply only to light felonies. D) Both mean that the offender has paid civil damages.
A) Exempt from restitution B) Automatically disqualified from all employment C) Liable only for imprisonment D) Civilly liable
A) Arrest B) Restitution C) Disqualification from public office D) Imprisonment
A) Restitution is legally available, subject to the statutory protection for certain third-party acquisitions B) The property has sentimental value only C) The victim agrees to waive all rights in every case D) The accused has already served the sentence
A) Imprisonment of the accused B) A reduction of the penalty C) Payment for the damage caused, determined by the court in accordance with the law D) A pardon granted by the President
A) Only the police officer who investigated the crime B) The injured party's family or a third person because of the crime, as legally established C) No one other than the direct victim under any circumstances D) Only the accused
A) The police investigator B) The court C) The barangay captain in every case D) The victim alone, without judicial determination
A) Principals, then accomplices, then accessories B) Accessories, accomplices, then principals C) Accomplices, accessories, then principals D) Any order chosen by the victim without regard to law
A) Return nothing because the participation was gratuitous B) Serve the principal's entire sentence C) Pay an automatic fine of ₱100,000 D) Make restitution equivalent to the extent of participation in the proceeds
A) Ends whenever the offender receives a pardon B) Automatically ends when imprisonment ends C) Continues notwithstanding service of sentence or certain forms of remission of the penalty, unless the civil liability is otherwise extinguished D) Is extinguished by the mere passage of one year
A) Criminal liability and civil liability are identical in all respects. B) Civil liability may survive in circumstances recognized by law even when criminal liability is extinguished, depending on the ground and applicable legal rules. C) Civil liability can never arise from a felony. D) Acquittal always extinguishes every form of civil liability. |