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CDI-2 SCIMED - Quiz
Contributed by: Three
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The offender's intent to kill
B) The location of the crime scene
C) The type of weapon used
D) The presence of mitigating circumstances
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
B) Collection of fingerprints only
C) Conducting polygraph tests
D) Recording witness names
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Time of day of the crime
B) Victim’s previous criminal history
C) Relationship between victim and suspect
D) Type of weapon used
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Age of the victim
B) Method of killing
C) Location of the crime
D) Age of the offender
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
B) Determining motive for concealment
C) Witness statements about pregnancy
D) Assessment of social status of victim
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
B) Family background of the victim
C) Time of day the injury occurred
D) Victim's income
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
B) Social media profiling
C) Assessing economic status of suspect
D) Checking family history
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) None of the above
B) Both A and B
C) Physical evidence collection
D) Motive and opportunity
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
B) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
C) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
D) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Focus only on the organizers
B) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
C) Conduct online investigations exclusively
D) Dismiss minor injuries
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Location aesthetics
B) Group dynamics and initiation processes
C) Public opinion
D) Economic status of members
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Conducting environmental crime inspections
B) Investigating burglary
C) Investigating traffic violations
D) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
B) Financial records of the accused
C) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
D) Previous employment history of the victim
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Offender's prior criminal record
B) Victim’s clothing choice
C) Familial relationships and tensions
D) Financial disputes within family
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) Checking prior vacations of victim
B) DNA and forensic evidence collection
C) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
D) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) Reconstructing crime sequence
B) All of the above
C) Determining motive
D) Identifying potential witnesses
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Identification of caretaker or mothe
B) Searching public records for health
C) Investigating local schools
D) Profiling neighbors
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Both A and B
B) Simple or grave
C) Neither A nor B
D) Temporary or permanent
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Allowing hazing in private clubs
B) Reducing police involvement
C) Making consent of victim irrelevant
D) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Scheduling court dates
B) Determining victim’s wealth
C) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
D) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) Weapon traces
B) All of the above
C) Clothing fibers
D) Biological samples
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Assumptions about intent
B) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
C) Social media monitoring
D) Dismissal of medical records
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Evaluating weather at time of death
B) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
C) Recording victim’s financial status
D) Linking physical evidence to suspect
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
B) Checking only criminal history
C) Ignoring victim testimony
D) Avoiding workplace inspections
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Assessing traffic conditions
B) Social media monitoring
C) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
D) Inspecting clothing of victim
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Confession or admission of suspect
B) Daily routines of victim
C) Financial transactions
D) Neighborhood survey
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
B) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
C) Ignoring complaints filed online
D) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Relying only on witness recollection
B) Skipping minor evidence
C) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
D) Publicizing case details immediately
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
B) Weather at the time of incident
C) Neighborhood demographics
D) Victim’s social media activity
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Economic background of the victim
B) School attendance records
C) Employment status of the parents
D) Maternal history and forensic evidence
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
B) Checking social media posts only
C) Ignoring minor injuries
D) Verifying location aesthetics
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Determine suspect wealth
B) Avoid further investigation
C) Corroborate facts and detect deception
D) Dismiss victim credibility
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Tracking public transport usage
B) Evaluating neighborhood trends
C) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
D) Recording victim’s hobbies
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Weather conditions exclusively
B) Neighbors’ opinions only
C) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
D) Victim’s financial records only
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Social gatherings of victim
B) Housing aesthetics
C) Political affiliations
D) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Financial status of complainant
B) Personal relationships of witness
C) Location of residence
D) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Track economic background
B) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
C) Assess neighborhood ratings
D) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Workplace records
B) Vacation plans
C) Public transportation habits
D) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
B) Neighborhood watch logs
C) School enrollment history
D) Social media presence
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
B) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
C) Ignore physical threats
D) Focus only on financial evidence
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
B) Weather monitoring
C) Financial audit of victim
D) Neighborhood survey
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
B) Determine neighborhood ratings
C) Track public opinion
D) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Location aesthetics
B) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
C) Witness social media activity
D) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Focusing on financial disputes
B) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
C) Restricting evidence to video only
D) Ignoring minor offenses
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
B) Tracking employment records
C) Evaluating social media posts
D) Assessing neighborhood ratings
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
B) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
C) Ignoring anonymous reports
D) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
B) Evaluating victim’s social media history
C) Monitoring neighbors
D) Investigating unrelated family disputes
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Monitoring public opinion
B) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
C) Focusing on witness’s financial status
D) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Evaluating neighborhood social status
B) Tracking school enrollment
C) Monitoring online activity
D) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
B) Tracking social media popularity
C) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
D) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
B) Temporary loss of consciousness
C) Death of individual organs
D) Death of the entire body
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Complete decomposition of the body
B) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
C) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
D) Death of the brain only
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
B) Death caused by trauma
C) Death of the organism as a whole
D) Legal declaration of death
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Post-mortem changes
B) Cellular death
C) Clinical death
D) Brain death
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Chronic kidney failure
B) Gradual cancer progression
C) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
D) Senility
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death from natural aging
B) Death occurring in hospitals only
C) Death due to natural causes
D) Death resulting from disease or injury
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) By sudden trauma
B) As a consequence of disease or aging
C) By suicide
D) Due to homicide or accident
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death due to natural illness
B) Death that occurs in hospitals
C) Death by deliberate act
D) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) External injuries indicating intentional harm
B) Absence of trauma
C) Cellular autolysis
D) Natural disease
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
B) Cancer
C) Aging
D) Chronic infection
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
B) Pathological only
C) Accidental
D) Natural
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Death due to secondary complications
B) Clinical death
C) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
D) Death due to immediate cause
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) Legal declaration of death
B) Complications following the primary cause
C) None of the above
D) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
B) Heart-lung resuscitation
C) Legal documentation
D) Temporary absence of heartbeat
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
B) Poison ingestion
C) Heart failure
D) Bacterial infection
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Blood pooling in dependent parts
B) Decomposition of soft tissues
C) Cooling of the body after death
D) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Stiffening of muscles
B) Discoloration of the skin
C) Decomposition of internal organs
D) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
B) Cooling of the body
C) Decomposition
D) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Algor mortis
B) Rigor mortis
C) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
D) Livor mortis
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
B) Skeletonization
C) LAdvanced decomposition
D) Mummification
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Hypothermia
B) Cold environment
C) Strenuous activity before death
D) Starvation
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Cold temperature
B) Sepsis
C) Physical exertion before death
D) Hyperthermia
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Algor mortis
B) Putrefaction
C) Livor mortis
D) Rigor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It is reversible
B) It occurs gradually
C) It affects the entire body uniformly
D) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Skin cooling
B) Muscle stiffening
C) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
D) Blood pooling
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) In dry and arid conditions
B) Immediately after death
C) In humid and warm climates
D) Only in cold environments
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Blood settling in dependent parts
C) Discoloration of skin
D) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Stiffening of muscles
B) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
C) Cooling of the body
D) Discoloration of the skin
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) None of the above
B) Only environmental temperature
C) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
D) Only cause of death
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Cause of death only
B) Only cadaveric spasm
C) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
D) Circumstantial evidence only
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Wound caused by chemical burns
B) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
C) Wound caused by heat
D) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Result of gunshot
B) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
C) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
D) Caused by blunt trauma
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Produced by blunt objects
B) Always fatal
C) Length greater than depth
D) Depth greater than length
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Blunt trauma
B) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
C) Chemical agents
D) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Deep stab wound
B) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
C) Tear in skin with smooth edges
D) Wound with irregular margins
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Tear in muscle
B) Bruise under intact skin
C) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
D) Deep penetrating wound
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Back
B) Legs
C) Palms or forearms
D) Abdomen
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
B) Only produced by blunt objects
C) Always fatal
D) Wide and irregular edges
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Superficial only
B) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
C) Sharp edges
D) Only in muscles
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Only superficial scraping
B) Only bruises
C) Complete removal of tissue
D) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Have irregular margins and burn marks
B) Cannot be analyzed
C) Are smooth and clean
D) Show no tissue damage
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Wound is post-mortem
B) Victim attempted to protect self
C) Victim was unaware
D) Perpetrator acted accidentally
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Size of wound
B) Only shape of the wound
C) Only presence of blood
D) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Blunt force with tearing
B) Chemical burns
C) Electrical injury
D) Sharp instrument
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Infection
B) Irregular margins
C) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
D) Extensive tissue bridging
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) Skin is intact
B) No bleeding occurs
C) Only cartilage is involved
D) Bone pierces the skin
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Shape only
B) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
C) Cause only
D) Age of victim
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Usually sharp, clean edges
B) Limited to hands
C) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
D) Only superficial injuries
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Incised wounds always fatal
B) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
C) Both are identical
D) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) Only discoloration
B) Only post-mortem staining
C) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
D) No bleeding
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