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Microsoft SQL Server - Quiz
Contributed by: Burrows
  • 1. What are the two modes of concurrency control provided by SQL Server?
A) Latch and spinlock control
B) Table-level and row-level locking
C) Exclusive and shared locking
D) Pessimistic and optimistic concurrency
  • 2. What does an exclusive lock grant to the user?
A) Priority queue access to tables
B) Read-only access to the data
C) Shared access with other users
D) Exclusive access to the data
  • 3. What is true about shared locks?
A) Multiple users can read data simultaneously
B) They allow exclusive locks to be acquired
C) They prevent all other reads
D) They are only applied to index leaves
  • 4. Who defines the granularity level for locking in SQL Server?
A) The Lock Manager
B) The database administrator
C) The SQL Server optimizer
D) The end-user client
  • 5. What is a disadvantage of fine-grained locking?
A) It requires more resources
B) It cannot be used on indexes
C) It blocks all other users
D) It automatically reduces performance
  • 6. What are the two lightweight mutual exclusion solutions mentioned?
A) Transactions and rollbacks
B) Version IDs and metadata
C) Latches and spinlocks
D) Shared locks and exclusive locks
  • 7. What happens when SQL Server detects a deadlock?
A) It restarts the entire database instance
B) It forces all threads to use optimistic concurrency
C) It pauses all threads until the deadlock clears
D) It kills one of the threads and rolls back the transaction
  • 8. What component maintains an in-memory table of database locks?
A) The Lock Manager
B) The Latch Controller
C) The Worker Thread Monitor
D) The Tempdb system
  • 9. Where are old versions of rows moved in optimistic concurrency?
A) Tempdb
B) The main data table
C) The transaction log
D) The index leaf nodes
  • 10. In optimistic concurrency, how is a row version identified?
A) By the ID of the transaction that created the version
B) By the row's physical memory address
C) By the user who initiated the update
D) By the system timestamp only
  • 11. What happens to other requests when a row is being updated under optimistic concurrency?
A) They are immediately blocked
B) They are executed on the older version of the row
C) They are moved to a waiting queue until the transaction ends
D) They are rejected with an error
  • 12. Which of the following is true about locks and latches?
A) Locks are used for DMVs while latches are used for tables
B) Latches are more robust than locks
C) Latches are less resource intensive than locks
D) Locks are more lightweight than latches
  • 13. Can multiple clients access the same database concurrently in SQL Server?
A) Only if the database is read-only
B) No, only one client at a time
C) Only if they are using optimistic concurrency
D) Yes
  • 14. What level of granularity can locks be applied to for indexes?
A) Entire index or index leaves
B) Database level only
C) Rows only
D) Pages only
  • 15. Which SQL Server version is Microsoft Data Engine 1.0 based on?
A) SQL Server 2005
B) SQL Server 2000
C) SQL Server 6.5
D) SQL Server 7.0
  • 16. Which version is Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine based on?
A) SQL Server 2005
B) SQL Server 2008
C) SQL Server 2000
D) SQL Server 7.0
  • 17. What was the eventual replacement for Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine?
A) SQL Server 2000 Personal Edition
B) SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
C) SQL Server Compact Edition
D) SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter
  • 18. What is another name for Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine?
A) Desktop Engine
B) Web Server Edition
C) Standard Proxy
D) Mobile Edition
  • 19. Which of the following did Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine NOT include?
A) Microsoft Access compatibility
B) Web admin tool
C) Database engine capabilities
D) A GUI
  • 20. Which edition was intended for use as a mobile/disconnected proxy in SQL Server 2000?
A) Personal Edition
B) Windows CE Edition
C) Datacenter Edition
D) Desktop Engine
  • 21. What is a characteristic of Personal Edition's database size?
A) 4 GB limit
B) No size limit
C) 10 GB limit
D) 1 GB limit
  • 22. Which feature did not work in Windows 98 for SQL Server 2000 Personal Edition?
A) Full-Text Search
B) SQL connectivity
C) Transactional replication
D) Standard management tools
  • 23. How many logical processors does SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter support?
A) 256
B) 128
C) 64
D) 512
  • 24. What replaced the Windows CE Edition?
A) SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
B) SQL Server Compact 3.5
C) SQL Server 2000 Personal Edition
D) SQL Server 2005 Mobile Edition
  • 25. What replaced SQL Server 2005 Mobile Edition?
A) SQL Server Compact 3.5
B) SQL Server 2008 R2
C) SQL Server 2005 Compact Edition
D) Windows CE Edition
  • 26. Who originally designed and developed TDS in 1984?
A) Sybase Inc.
B) IBM
C) Microsoft
D) Oracle
  • 27. Which of the following transport protocols can TDS be encased in?
A) FTP
B) TCP/IP
C) SMTP
D) UDP only
  • 28. Which tool is used for Stress Testing and Performance Analysis in SQL Server 2000?
A) Read80Trace
B) Best Practices Analyzer
C) SQLXML
D) PSSDIAG
  • 29. Up to which service pack was Reporting Services included as a supplemental package for SQL Server 2000?
A) Service Pack 2
B) Service Pack 1
C) Service Pack 3
D) Service Pack 4
  • 30. In what year was the first version of Microsoft SQL Server released?
A) 1993
B) 1989
C) 1995
D) 1985
  • 31. What feature was introduced in SQL Server 2012?
A) OS/2 support
B) Big Data Clusters
C) Linux support
D) Columnar in-memory storage (xVelocity)
  • 32. What was the codename for SQL Server 2000?
A) xVelocity
B) NT-OS
C) Shiloh
D) Big Data
  • 33. Which processor architecture is required for SQL Server 2016 and beyond?
A) x64
B) ARM
C) x86
D) PowerPC
  • 34. What is the release date of Microsoft SQL Server 2025?
A) November 30, 2024
B) November 18, 2025
C) December 25, 2025
D) January 1, 2025
  • 35. What is the maximum database size supported by SQL Server Enterprise Edition?
A) 524 petabytes
B) 100 terabytes
C) 12 terabytes
D) 640 petabytes
  • 36. How much memory can SQL Server Enterprise Edition address?
A) 640 terabytes
B) 524 gigabytes
C) 1 terabyte
D) 12 terabytes
  • 37. How many logical processors does SQL Server Enterprise Edition support?
A) 640
B) 1024
C) 524
D) 12
  • 38. Which feature is absent in SQL Server Standard edition but present in Enterprise?
A) Core database engine
B) Hot-add memory
C) SQL cluster management
D) Stand-alone services
  • 39. Which tool is included in the Business Intelligence edition?
A) Power Pivot
B) Hot-add memory
C) SQL Server Management Studio Basic
D) Parallel indexes
  • 40. What is the current database file size limit for SQL Server Express?
A) 4 GB
B) 50 GB
C) 1 TB
D) 10 GB
  • 41. What is the database file limit for SQL Server Express prior to 2025?
A) 1 GB
B) 50 GB
C) 4 GB
D) 10 GB
  • 42. Which architecture does Azure SQL Data Warehouse use for analytics workloads?
A) Embedded architecture
B) Client-server architecture
C) Single-threaded processing
D) Massively parallel processing (MPP)
  • 43. When did Microsoft make the Developer Edition free of charge to the public?
A) 2012
B) Early 2016
C) 2020
D) 2005
  • 44. What is the time limit for the SQL Server Evaluation Edition?
A) 180 days
B) 365 days
C) 90 days
D) 30 days
  • 45. Which edition is designed for enterprise-scale data warehousing and runs on optimized reference-architecture hardware?
A) Compact Edition
B) Fast Track
C) LocalDB
D) SSEE
  • 46. Who is LocalDB primarily designed for?
A) Database administrators
B) Application developers
C) Cloud architects
D) Mobile device users
  • 47. What is the primary unit of I/O for SQL Server operations?
A) Partition
B) Page
C) Allocation unit
D) Extent
  • 48. What is the size of a single SQL Server page?
A) 8 KB
B) 4 KB
C) 2 KB
D) 16 KB
  • 49. What is the file extension for primary data files?
A) .mdf
B) .ndf
C) .db
D) .ldf
  • 50. What is the file extension for log files?
A) .mdf
B) .ldf
C) .log
D) .ndf
  • 51. How many pages are contained in one extent?
A) 32
B) 8
C) 4
D) 16
  • 52. What is the term for server statistics available as virtual tables?
A) System Statistics Tables
B) Virtual Data Objects
C) Performance Monitors
D) Dynamic Management Views
  • 53. Which structure stores rows in an unordered manner?
A) B-tree
B) Clustered index
C) Heap
D) Partition
  • 54. What is the size of the header that marks a page?
A) 128 bytes
B) 8 bytes
C) 64 bytes
D) 96 bytes
  • 55. Which data type is used for unstructured blobs of data?
A) Float
B) binary
C) Integer
D) Varchar
  • 56. What is the name for the set of all pages currently buffered in memory?
A) System log
B) Buffer cache
C) Transaction heap
D) Disk storage
  • 57. How are I/O operations handled when writing pages back to disk?
A) Networked I/O
B) Synchronous I/O
C) Sequential I/O
D) Asynchronous I/O
  • 58. What is written along with a page when it is saved to disk?
A) A time stamp
B) A checksum
C) A user ID
D) An encryption key
  • 59. What is the name of the variant of SQL used by Microsoft SQL Server?
A) T-SQL
B) PL/SQL
C) MySQL
D) PostgreSQL
  • 60. What is the sequence of actions necessary to execute a query called?
A) Query plan
B) Stored procedure
C) SQL dialect
D) Data retrieval
  • 61. Which component is responsible for choosing the most efficient query plan?
A) Network interface
B) Query processor
C) Client application
D) Database administrator
  • 62. What is the process of choosing the query plan expected to yield the fastest results called?
A) Schema mapping
B) Index restructuring
C) Data serialization
D) Query optimization
  • 63. What is the primary reason for SQL Server sharing a dialect with Sybase SQL Server?
A) Legacy
B) Performance benchmarks
C) Industry standard compliance
D) Cloud compatibility
  • 64. What factor might lead the optimizer to avoid using an index?
A) Large table size
B) Complex joins
C) High system load
D) Low selectivity
  • 65. What is the full name of the procedural language extension for Microsoft SQL Server?
A) Table-SQL
B) Transfer-SQL
C) Transact-SQL
D) Template-SQL
  • 66. Which component is responsible for managing memory, threading, and resources for .NET in SQL Server?
A) ADO.NET
B) Windows OS
C) SQLOS
D) CLR Host
  • 67. How are management operations typically performed in T-SQL?
A) Via GUI configuration files
B) Via direct memory manipulation
C) Via external PowerShell scripts
D) Via system-defined stored procedures
  • 68. In SQL CLR, what language can be used to write stored procedures?
A) T-SQL exclusively
B) Assembly code only
C) Any managed .NET language
D) Native C++ only
  • 69. What is used to define custom types that can persist in a SQL Server database?
A) External XML schemas
B) System stored procedures
C) Managed code (UDTs)
D) SQLOS assemblies
  • 70. Which of the following is an example of an ADO.NET enhancement in SQL Server?
A) GUI development tools
B) Context connections
C) Direct hardware communication
D) Automatic memory garbage collection
  • 71. Which of the following is a typical system task performed by SQL Server Agent?
A) Installing third-party software
B) Scheduling maintenance plans
C) Writing SQL code documentation
D) Modifying Windows registry keys
  • 72. Which of these is a log shipping sub-task performed by SQL Server Agent?
A) Backup, copy, restore & check
B) Table deletion and indexing
C) User password recovery
D) Graphics rendering
  • 73. Which of the following is a proprietary package included with SQL Server Machine Learning services?
A) scikit-learn
B) numpy
C) pandas
D) revoscalepy
  • 74. What defines the data format of a message in Service Broker?
A) Queue
B) Contract
C) Route
D) Message type
  • 75. What entity defines which messages are used in a conversation and who can access the queue?
A) Message type
B) Contract
C) Service program
D) Route
  • 76. How are Service Broker queues implemented internally by SQL Server?
A) As tables
B) As flat text files
C) As virtual memory buffers
D) As encrypted objects
  • 77. Which operation is NOT supported on Service Broker queues?
A) Storage
B) Processing
C) Insert
D) Receiving
  • 78. What represent the network addresses where a service broker is located?
A) Contracts
B) Routes
C) Queues
D) Message types
  • 79. Which security feature is supported by Service Broker?
A) Physical firewall control
B) Message encryption
C) Biometric authentication
D) Password recovery
  • 80. Which model does SQL Server Replication Services follow?
A) Client/server model
B) Publisher/subscriber model
C) Master/slave model
D) Peer-to-peer model
  • 81. Which type of replication synchronizes databases in near real time?
A) Snapshot replication
B) Transactional replication
C) Distributed replication
D) Merge replication
  • 82. What is required on a column if merge replication is configured?
A) Primary key
B) Foreign key
C) Index
D) Rowguid
  • 83. Which replication type replicates a copy of the database and does not track further changes?
A) Merge replication
B) Transactional replication
C) Snapshot replication
D) Bi-directional replication
  • 84. What type of synchronization does Merge replication provide?
A) Unidirectional
B) Bi-directional
C) Real-time only
D) Manual only
  • 85. What is the underlying communication protocol for Analysis Services?
A) SQL/RPC
B) XML for Analysis
C) REST
D) SOAP
  • 86. Which query language is used for data mining functionality in SSAS?
A) DMX
B) LINQ
C) MDX
D) T-SQL
  • 87. Which of these is a supported data mining algorithm in Analysis Services?
A) Naive Bayes
B) B-Tree indexing
C) Merge sort
D) Hash join
  • 88. Which of these algorithms is included for data mining in Analysis Services?
A) A* search
B) Neural networks
C) Dijkstra's algorithm
D) QuickSort
  • 89. What is the primary function of SSRS?
A) Full-text indexing
B) Report generation
C) Data warehousing
D) Database administration
  • 90. In what format are SSRS reports created?
A) XML files
B) SQL files
C) PDF files
D) RDL files
  • 91. Which tool can be used to design SSRS reports?
A) SQL Server Management Studio
B) Filter Daemon
C) Data Transformation Services
D) Report Builder
  • 92. Which of these is NOT a supported rendering format for SSRS reports?
A) CSV
B) JPEG
C) DOCX
D) PDF
  • 93. Which is NOT a method used by Notification Services to send messages?
A) HTTP POST
B) SOAP
C) SMTP
D) Writing to a filesystem file
  • 94. When was Notification Services discontinued by Microsoft?
A) March 2010
B) December 2000
C) January 2005
D) August 2008
  • 95. What is the main purpose of SSIS?
A) Notification management
B) ETL capabilities
C) Full-text searching
D) Web report interface
  • 96. What is the maximum rank value in Full Text Search?
A) 255
B) 500
C) 1000
D) 100
  • 97. What is the name of the Filter Daemon process?
A) msftefd.exe
B) sqlservr.exe
C) msftesql.exe
D) ssis.exe
  • 98. What is the name of the Search process?
A) msftesql.exe
B) gatherer.exe
C) sqlindexer.exe
D) msftefd.exe
  • 99. What component monitors changes to tables and invokes the indexer?
A) Gatherer
B) Filter Daemon
C) Thesaurus
D) Query Processor
  • 100. What are commonly occurring, non-useful words filtered out by the indexer called?
A) Stop tags
B) Excluded tokens
C) Empty fragments
D) Noise words
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